CHAPTER 157

Senate Bill No. 430
(Amends Chapters 2, 35, 61, 126 and 133)

An Act concerning crimes, punishment and criminal procedure; reconciling multiple amendments to certain statutes; adding mitragynine to schedule I of the uniform controlled substances act; amending K.S.A. 21-5801, as amended by section 2 of 2026 House Bill No. 2413, and 21-6614, as amended by section 2 of 2025 House Bill No. 2323, and K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 65-4105, as amended by section 2 of 2025 House Bill No. 2365, and repealing the existing sections; also repealing K.S.A. 21-5801, as amended by section 7 of 2025 House Bill No. 2347, and 21-6614, as amended by section 4 of 2025 House Bill No. 2393.

Be it enacted by the Legislature of the State of Kansas:

Section 1. K.S.A. 21-5801, as amended by section 2 of 2026 House Bill No. 2413, is hereby amended to read as follows: 21-5801. (a) Theft is any of the following acts done with intent to permanently deprive the owner of the possession, use or benefit of the owner’s property or services:

(1) Obtaining or exerting unauthorized control over property or services;

(2) obtaining control over property or services by deception;

(3) obtaining control over property or services by threat;

(4) obtaining control over stolen property or services knowing, or having reason to know, the property or services to have been were stolen by from another; or

(5) knowingly dispensing motor fuel into a storage container or the fuel tank of a motor vehicle at an establishment in which motor fuel is offered for retail sale and leaving the premises of the establishment without making payment for the motor fuel.

(b) Theft of:

(1) Property or services of the value of $100,000 or more is a severity level 5, nonperson felony;

(2) property or services of the value of at least $25,000 but less than $100,000 is a severity level 7, nonperson felony, except as provided in subsection (b)(9) or (b)(10);

(3) property or services of the value of at least $1,500 but less than $25,000 is a severity level 9, nonperson felony, except as provided in subsection (b)(7), (b)(9) or (b)(10);

(4) property or services of the value of less than $1,500 is a class A nonperson misdemeanor, except as provided in subsection (b)(5), (b)(6), (b)(7), (b)(8), (b)(9) or (b)(10);

(5) property of the value of less than $1,500 from three separate mercantile establishments within a period of 72 hours as part of the same act or transaction or in two or more acts or transactions connected together or constituting parts of a common scheme or course of conduct is a severity level 9, nonperson felony;

(6) property of the value of at least $50 but less than $1,500 is a severity level 9, nonperson felony if committed by a person who has, within five years immediately preceding commission of the crime, excluding any period of imprisonment, been convicted of theft two or more times, except as provided in subsection (b)(9) or (b)(10);

(7) property that is a firearm of the value of less than $25,000 is a severity level 9, nonperson felony;

(8) property that is mail of the value of less than $1,500 from three separate locations within a period of 72 hours as part of the same act or transaction or in two or more acts or transactions connected together or constituting parts of a common scheme or course of conduct is a severity level 9, nonperson felony;

(9) property that is livestock or an implement of husbandry is a severity level 5, nonperson felony; and

(10) property that is grain or hay is a severity level 6, nonperson felony; and

(11) property that is a motor vehicle of the value of at least $500 but less than $1,500 is a severity level 10, nonperson felony.

(c) As used in this section:

(1) “Conviction” or “convicted” includes being convicted of a violation of K.S.A. 21-3701, prior to its repeal, this section or a municipal ordinance that prohibits the acts that this section prohibits;

(2) “grain” means at least 400 bushels of:

(A) Barley, corn, flaxseed, oats, rye, sorghum, soybeans or wheat;

(B) any other food grains, feed grains and oilseeds subject to standards under 7 U.S.C. Ch. 3, as in effect on July 1, 2026; or

(C) any mix of the above;

(3) “hay” means at least 20,000 pounds of alfalfa, brome, clover or prairie hays or all other grasses or plants that are harvested for forage;

(4) “implement of husbandry” means the same as defined in K.S.A. 8-126, and amendments thereto;

(5) “livestock” means cattle or horses;

(6) “mail” means a letter, postal card, package or bag sent through the United States postal service or other delivery service, or any other article or thing contained therein;

(7) “regulated scrap metal” means the same as defined in K.S.A. 50-6,109, and amendments thereto;

(8) “remote service unit” means the same as defined in K.S.A. 9-1111, and amendments thereto, and includes, but is not limited to, automated cash dispensing machines and automated teller machines; and

(9) “value” means the value of the property or, if the property is regulated scrap metal or a remote service unit, the cost to restore the site of the theft of such regulated scrap metal or remote service unit to its condition at the time immediately prior to the theft of such regulated scrap metal or remote service unit, whichever is greater.

Sec. 2. K.S.A. 21-6614, as amended by section 2 of 2025 House Bill No. 2323, is hereby amended to read as follows: 21-6614. (a) (1) Except as provided in subsections (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f), any person convicted in this state of a traffic infraction, cigarette or tobacco infraction, misdemeanor or a class D or E felony, or for crimes committed on or after July 1, 1993, any nongrid felony or felony ranked in severity levels 6 through 10 of the nondrug grid, or for crimes committed on or after July 1, 1993, but prior to July 1, 2012, any felony ranked in severity level 4 of the drug grid, or for crimes committed on or after July 1, 2012, any felony ranked in severity level 5 of the drug grid may petition the convicting court for the expungement of such conviction or related arrest records if three or more years have elapsed since the person: (A) Satisfied the sentence imposed; or (B) was discharged from probation, a community correctional services program, parole, postrelease supervision, conditional release or a suspended sentence.

(2) Except as provided in subsections (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f), any person who has fulfilled the terms of a diversion agreement may petition the district court for the expungement of such diversion agreement and related arrest records if three or more years have elapsed since the terms of the diversion agreement were fulfilled.

(3) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a)(1), and except as provided in subsections (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f), any person who has completed the requirements of a specialty court program established pursuant to K.S.A. 20-173, and amendments thereto, may petition the district court for the expungement of the conviction and related arrest records. The court may waive all or part of the docket fee imposed for filing a petition pursuant to this subsection.

(b) Any person convicted of prostitution, as defined in K.S.A. 21-3512, prior to its repeal, convicted of a violation of K.S.A. 21-6419, and amendments thereto, or who entered into a diversion agreement in lieu of further criminal proceedings for such violation, may petition the convicting court for the expungement of such conviction or diversion agreement and related arrest records if:

(1) One or more years have elapsed since the person satisfied the sentence imposed or the terms of a diversion agreement or was discharged from probation, a community correctional services program, parole, postrelease supervision, conditional release or a suspended sentence; and

(2) such person can prove they were acting under coercion caused by the act of another. For purposes of this subsection, “coercion” means: Threats of harm or physical restraint against any person; a scheme, plan or pattern intended to cause a person to believe that failure to perform an act would result in bodily harm or physical restraint against any person; or the abuse or threatened abuse of the legal process.

(c) Except as provided in subsections (e) and (f), no person may petition for expungement until five or more years have elapsed since the person satisfied the sentence imposed or the terms of a diversion agreement or was discharged from probation, a community correctional services program, parole, postrelease supervision, conditional release or a suspended sentence, if such person was convicted of a class A, B or C felony, or for crimes committed on or after July 1, 1993, if convicted of an off-grid felony or any felony ranked in severity levels 1 through 5 of the nondrug grid, or for crimes committed on or after July 1, 1993, but prior to July 1, 2012, any felony ranked in severity levels 1 through 3 of the drug grid, or for crimes committed on or after July 1, 2012, any felony ranked in severity levels 1 through 4 of the drug grid, or:

(1) Vehicular homicide, as defined in K.S.A. 21-3405, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5406, and amendments thereto, or as prohibited by any law of another state that is in substantial conformity with that statute;

(2) driving while the privilege to operate a motor vehicle on the public highways of this state has been canceled, suspended or revoked, as prohibited by K.S.A. 8-262, and amendments thereto, or as prohibited by any law of another state that is in substantial conformity with that statute;

(3) perjury resulting from a violation of K.S.A. 8-261a, and amendments thereto, or resulting from the violation of a law of another state that is in substantial conformity with that statute;

(4) violating the provisions of K.S.A. 8-142 Fifth, and amendments thereto, relating to fraudulent applications or violating the provisions of a law of another state that is in substantial conformity with that statute;

(5) any crime punishable as a felony wherein a motor vehicle was used in the perpetration of such crime;

(6) failing to stop at the scene of an accident and perform the duties required by K.S.A. 8-1603, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 8-1602 or 8-1604, and amendments thereto, or required by a law of another state that is in substantial conformity with those statutes;

(7) violating the provisions of K.S.A. 40-3104, and amendments thereto, relating to motor vehicle liability insurance coverage; or

(8) a violation of K.S.A. 21-3405b, prior to its repeal.

(d) (1) No person may petition for expungement until five or more years have elapsed since the person satisfied the sentence imposed or the terms of a diversion agreement or was discharged from probation, a community correctional services program, parole, postrelease supervision, conditional release or a suspended sentence, if such person was convicted of a first violation of K.S.A. 8-1567, and amendments thereto, including any diversion for such violation.

(2) No person may petition for expungement until 10 or more years have elapsed since the person satisfied the sentence imposed or was discharged from probation, a community correctional services program, parole, postrelease supervision, conditional release or a suspended sentence, if such person was convicted of a second or subsequent violation of K.S.A. 8-1567, and amendments thereto.

(3) Except as provided further, the provisions of this subsection shall apply to all violations committed on or after July 1, 2006. The provisions of subsection (d)(2) shall not apply to violations committed on or after July 1, 2014, but prior to July 1, 2015.

(e) There shall be no expungement of convictions for the following offenses or of convictions for an attempt to commit any of the following offenses:

(1) Rape, as defined in K.S.A. 21-3502, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5503, and amendments thereto;

(2) indecent liberties with a child or aggravated indecent liberties with a child, as defined in K.S.A. 21-3503 or 21-3504, prior to their repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5506, and amendments thereto;

(3) criminal sodomy, as defined in K.S.A. 21-3505(a)(2) or (a)(3), prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5504(a)(3) or (a)(4), and amendments thereto;

(4) aggravated criminal sodomy, as defined in K.S.A. 21-3506, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5504, and amendments thereto;

(5) indecent solicitation of a child or aggravated indecent solicitation of a child, as defined in K.S.A. 21-3510 or 21-3511, prior to their repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5508, and amendments thereto;

(6) sexual exploitation of a child, as defined in K.S.A. 21-3516, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5510, and amendments thereto;

(7) internet trading in child pornography or aggravated internet trading in child pornography, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5514, and amendments thereto;

(8) aggravated incest, as defined in K.S.A. 21-3603, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5604, and amendments thereto;

(9) endangering a child or aggravated endangering a child, as defined in K.S.A. 21-3608 or 21-3608a, prior to their repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5601, and amendments thereto;

(10) abuse of a child, as defined in K.S.A. 21-3609, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5602, and amendments thereto;

(11) capital murder, as defined in K.S.A. 21-3439, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5401, and amendments thereto;

(12) murder in the first degree, as defined in K.S.A. 21-3401, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5402, and amendments thereto;

(13) murder in the second degree, as defined in K.S.A. 21-3402, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5403, and amendments thereto;

(14) voluntary manslaughter, as defined in K.S.A. 21-3403, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5404, and amendments thereto;

(15) involuntary manslaughter, as defined in K.S.A. 21-3404, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5405, and amendments thereto;

(16) sexual battery, as defined in K.S.A. 21-3517, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5505, and amendments thereto, when the victim was less than 18 years of age at the time the crime was committed;

(17) aggravated sexual battery, as defined in K.S.A. 21-3518, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5505, and amendments thereto;

(18) a violation of K.S.A. 8-2,144, and amendments thereto, including any diversion for such violation; or

(19) any conviction for any offense in effect at any time prior to July 1, 2011, that is comparable to any offense as provided in this subsection.

(f) Except as provided in K.S.A. 22-4908, and amendments thereto, for any offender who is required to register as provided in the Kansas offender registration act, K.S.A. 22-4901 et seq., and amendments thereto, there shall be no expungement of any conviction or any part of the offender’s criminal record while the offender is required to register as provided in the Kansas offender registration act.

(g) (1) When a petition for expungement is filed, the court shall set a date for a hearing of such petition and shall cause notice of such hearing to be given to the prosecutor and the arresting law enforcement agency. The petition shall state the:

(A) Defendant’s full name;

(B) full name of the defendant at the time of arrest, conviction or diversion, if different than the defendant’s current name;

(C) defendant’s sex, race and date of birth;

(D) crime for which the defendant was arrested, convicted or diverted;

(E) date of the defendant’s arrest, conviction or diversion; and

(F) identity of the convicting court, arresting law enforcement authority or diverting authority.

(2) Except as otherwise provided by law, a petition for expungement shall be accompanied by a docket fee in the amount of $176. On and after July 1, 2019 2026, through June 30, 2025 2030, the supreme court may impose a charge, not to exceed $19 per case, to fund the costs of non-judicial personnel. The charge established in this section shall be the only fee collected or moneys in the nature of a fee collected for the case. Such charge shall only be established by an act of the legislature and no other authority is established by law or otherwise to collect a fee.

(3) All petitions for expungement shall be docketed in the original criminal action. Any person who may have relevant information about the petitioner may testify at the hearing. The court may inquire into the background of the petitioner and shall have access to any reports or records relating to the petitioner that are on file with the secretary of corrections or the prisoner review board.

(h) At the hearing on the petition, the court shall order the petitioner’s arrest record, conviction or diversion expunged if the court finds that:

(1) (A) The petitioner has not been convicted of a felony in the past two years and no proceeding involving any such crime is presently pending or being instituted against the petitioner if the petition is filed under subsection (a)(1) or (a)(2); or

(B) no proceeding involving a felony is presently pending or being instituted against the petitioner if the petition is filed under subsection (a)(3);

(2) the circumstances and behavior of the petitioner warrant the expungement;

(3) the expungement is consistent with the public welfare; and

(4) with respect to petitions seeking expungement of a felony conviction, possession of a firearm by the petitioner is not likely to pose a threat to the safety of the public.

(i) When the court has ordered an arrest record, conviction or diversion expunged, the order of expungement shall state the information required to be contained in the petition. The clerk of the court shall send a certified copy of the order of expungement to the Kansas bureau of investigation that shall notify the federal bureau of investigation, the secretary of corrections and any other criminal justice agency that may have a record of the arrest, conviction or diversion. If the case was appealed from municipal court, the clerk of the district court shall send a certified copy of the order of expungement to the municipal court. The municipal court shall order the case expunged once the certified copy of the order of expungement is received. After the order of expungement is entered, the petitioner shall be treated as not having been arrested, convicted or diverted of the crime, except that:

(1) Upon conviction for any subsequent crime, the conviction that was expunged may be considered as a prior conviction in determining the sentence to be imposed;

(2) the petitioner shall disclose that the arrest, conviction or diversion occurred if asked about previous arrests, convictions or diversions:

(A) In any application for licensure as a private detective, private detective agency, certification as a firearms trainer pursuant to K.S.A. 75-7b21, and amendments thereto, or employment as a detective with a private detective agency, as defined by K.S.A. 75-7b01, and amendments thereto; as security personnel with a private patrol operator, as defined by K.S.A. 75-7b01, and amendments thereto; or with an institution, as defined in K.S.A. 76-12a01, and amendments thereto, of the Kansas department for aging and disability services;

(B) in any application for admission, or for an order of reinstatement, to the practice of law in this state;

(C) to aid in determining the petitioner’s qualifications for employment with the Kansas lottery or for work in sensitive areas within the Kansas lottery as deemed appropriate by the executive director of the Kansas lottery;

(D) to aid in determining the petitioner’s qualifications for executive director of the Kansas racing and gaming commission, for employment with the commission or for work in sensitive areas in parimutuel racing as deemed appropriate by the executive director of the commission, or to aid in determining qualifications for licensure or renewal of licensure by the commission;

(E) to aid in determining the petitioner’s qualifications for the following under the Kansas expanded lottery act: (i) Lottery gaming facility manager or prospective manager, racetrack gaming facility manager or prospective manager, licensee or certificate holder; or (ii) an officer, director, employee, owner, agent or contractor thereof;

(F) upon application for a commercial driver’s license under K.S.A. 8-2,125 through 8-2,142, and amendments thereto;

(G) to aid in determining the petitioner’s qualifications to be an employee of the state gaming agency;

(H) to aid in determining the petitioner’s qualifications to be an employee of a tribal gaming commission or to hold a license issued pursuant to a tribal-state gaming compact;

(I) in any application for registration as a broker-dealer, agent, investment adviser or investment adviser representative all as defined in K.S.A. 17-12a102, and amendments thereto;

(J) in any application for employment as a law enforcement officer as defined in K.S.A. 22-2202 or 74-5602, and amendments thereto;

(K) to aid in determining the petitioner’s qualifications for a license to act as a bail enforcement agent pursuant to K.S.A. 75-7e01 through 75-7e09, and amendments thereto, and K.S.A. 50-6,141, and amendments thereto; or

(L) in any application for licensure as an insurance producer or public adjuster, as defined in K.S.A. 40-4901 and 40-5501, and amendments thereto, and the arrest, conviction or diversion is for one or more instances of a fraudulent insurance act, as defined in K.S.A. 40-2,118, and amendments thereto;

(3) the court, in the order of expungement, may specify other circumstances under which the conviction is to be disclosed;

(4) the conviction may be disclosed in a subsequent prosecution for an offense that requires as an element of such offense a prior conviction of the type expunged; and

(5) upon commitment to the custody of the secretary of corrections, any previously expunged record in the possession of the secretary of corrections may be reinstated and the expungement disregarded, and the record continued for the purpose of the new commitment.

(j) Whenever a person is convicted of a crime, pleads guilty and pays a fine for a crime, is placed on parole, postrelease supervision or probation, is assigned to a community correctional services program, is granted a suspended sentence or is released on conditional release, the person shall be informed of the ability to expunge the arrest records or conviction. Whenever a person enters into a diversion agreement, the person shall be informed of the ability to expunge the diversion.

(k) (1) Subject to the disclosures required pursuant to subsection (i), in any application for employment, license or other civil right or privilege, or any appearance as a witness, a person whose arrest records, conviction or diversion of a crime has been expunged under this statute may state that such person has never been arrested, convicted or diverted of such crime.

(2) A person whose arrest record, conviction or diversion of a crime that resulted in such person being prohibited by state or federal law from possessing a firearm has been expunged under this statute shall be deemed to have had such person’s right to keep and bear arms fully restored. This restoration of rights shall include, but not be limited to, the right to use, transport, receive, purchase, transfer and possess firearms. The provisions of this paragraph shall apply to all orders of expungement, including any orders issued prior to July 1, 2021.

(l) Whenever the record of any arrest, conviction or diversion has been expunged under the provisions of this section or under the provisions of any other existing or former statute, the custodian of the records of arrest, conviction, diversion and incarceration relating to that crime shall not disclose the existence of such records, except when requested by:

(1) The person whose record was expunged;

(2) a private detective agency or a private patrol operator, and the request is accompanied by a statement that the request is being made in conjunction with an application for employment with such agency or operator by the person whose record has been expunged;

(3) a court, upon a showing of a subsequent conviction of the person whose record has been expunged;

(4) the secretary for aging and disability services, or a designee of the secretary, for the purpose of obtaining information relating to employment in an institution, as defined in K.S.A. 76-12a01, and amendments thereto, of the Kansas department for aging and disability services of any person whose record has been expunged;

(5) a person entitled to such information pursuant to the terms of the expungement order;

(6) a prosecutor, and such request is accompanied by a statement that the request is being made in conjunction with a prosecution of an offense that requires a prior conviction as one of the elements of such offense;

(7) the supreme court, the clerk or disciplinary administrator thereof, the state board for admission of attorneys or the state board for discipline of attorneys, and the request is accompanied by a statement that the request is being made in conjunction with an application for admission, or for an order of reinstatement, to the practice of law in this state by the person whose record has been expunged;

(8) the Kansas lottery, and the request is accompanied by a statement that the request is being made to aid in determining qualifications for employment with the Kansas lottery or for work in sensitive areas within the Kansas lottery as deemed appropriate by the executive director of the Kansas lottery;

(9) the governor or the Kansas racing and gaming commission, or a designee of the commission, and the request is accompanied by a statement that the request is being made to aid in determining qualifications for executive director of the commission, for employment with the commission, for work in sensitive areas in parimutuel racing as deemed appropriate by the executive director of the commission or for licensure, renewal of licensure or continued licensure by the commission;

(10) the Kansas racing and gaming commission, or a designee of the commission, and the request is accompanied by a statement that the request is being made to aid in determining qualifications of the following under the Kansas expanded lottery act: (A) Lottery gaming facility managers and prospective managers, racetrack gaming facility managers and prospective managers, licensees and certificate holders; and (B) their officers, directors, employees, owners, agents and contractors;

(11) the Kansas sentencing commission;

(12) the state gaming agency, and the request is accompanied by a statement that the request is being made to aid in determining qualifications: (A) To be an employee of the state gaming agency; or (B) to be an employee of a tribal gaming commission or to hold a license issued pursuant to a tribal-gaming compact;

(13) the Kansas securities commissioner or a designee of the commissioner, and the request is accompanied by a statement that the request is being made in conjunction with an application for registration as a broker-dealer, agent, investment adviser or investment adviser representative by such agency and the application was submitted by the person whose record has been expunged;

(14) the Kansas commission on peace officers’ standards and training and the request is accompanied by a statement that the request is being made to aid in determining certification eligibility as a law enforcement officer pursuant to K.S.A. 74-5601 et seq., and amendments thereto;

(15) a law enforcement agency and the request is accompanied by a statement that the request is being made to aid in determining eligibility for employment as a law enforcement officer as defined by K.S.A. 22-2202, and amendments thereto;

(16) (A) the attorney general and the request is accompanied by a statement that the request is being made to aid in determining qualifications for a license to act as a bail enforcement agent pursuant to K.S.A. 75-7e01 through 75-7e09, and amendments thereto, and K.S.A. 50-6,141, and amendments thereto; or

(B) the attorney general for any other purpose authorized by law, except that an expungement record shall not be the basis for denial of a license to carry a concealed handgun under the personal and family protection act;

(17) the Kansas bureau of investigation, for the purpose of completing a person’s criminal history record information within the central repository, in accordance with K.S.A. 22-4701 et seq., and amendments thereto; or

(18) the Kansas insurance commissioner or a designee of the commissioner, and the request is accompanied by a statement that the request is being made in conjunction with an application for licensure as an insurance producer or public adjuster, as defined in K.S.A 40-4901 and 40-5501, and amendments thereto, and the arrest, conviction or diversion is for one or more instances of a fraudulent insurance act, as defined in K.S.A. 40-2,118, and amendments thereto.

(m) (1) The provisions of subsection (l)(17) shall apply to records created prior to, on and after July 1, 2011.

(2) Upon the issuance of an order of expungement that resulted in the restoration of a person’s right to keep and bear arms, the Kansas bureau of investigation shall report to the federal bureau of investigation that such expunged record be withdrawn from the national instant criminal background check system. The Kansas bureau of investigation shall include such order of expungement in the person’s criminal history record for purposes of documenting the restoration of such person’s right to keep and bear arms.

Sec. 3. K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 65-4105, as amended by section 2 of 2025 House Bill No. 2365, is hereby amended to read as follows: 65-4105. (a) The controlled substances listed in this section are included in schedule I and the number set forth opposite each drug or substance is the DEA controlled substances code that has been assigned to it.

(b) Any of the following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters and ethers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these isomers, esters, ethers and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1)	Acetylmethadol 9601
(2)	AH-7921 (3,4-dichloro-N-[(1-dimethylamino)cyclohexylmethyl]benzamide) 9551
(3)	Allylprodine 9602
(4)	Alphacetylmethadol 9603
	(except levo-alphacetylmethadol also known as levo-alpha-acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate or LAAM)
(5)	Alphameprodine 9604
(6)	Alphamethadol 9605
(7)	Benzethidine 9606
(8)	Betacetylmethadol 9607
(9)	Betameprodine 9608
(10)	Betamethadol 9609
(11)	Betaprodine 9611
(12)	Brorphine (1-(1-(1-(4-bromophenyl)ethyl)piperidin-4-yl)-1,3-dihydro-2H-benzo[d]imidazol-2-one) 9098
(13)	Butonitazene (2-(2-(4-butoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1 H -benzimidazol-1-yl)- N,N -diethylethan-1-amine) 9751
(14)	Clonitazene 9612
(15)	Dextromoramide 9613
(16)	Diampromide 9615
(17)	Diethylthiambutene 9616
(18)	Difenoxin 9168
(19)	Dimenoxadol 9617
(20)	Dimepheptanol 9618
(21)	Dimethylthiambutene 9619
(22)	Dioxaphetyl butyrate 9621
(23)	Dipipanone 9622
(24)	2-(2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-1 H -benzimidazol-1-yl)- N,N -diethylethan-1-amine (Other names: etodesnitazene; etazene) 9765
(25)	2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1-(2-(piperidin-1-yl)ethyl)-1 H -benzimidazole (Other names: N -piperidinyl etonitazene; etonitazepipne) 9761
(26)	2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1-(2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)ethyl)-1 H -benzimidazole (Other names: N -pyrrolidino etonitazene; etonitazepyne) 9758
(27)	Ethylmethylthiambutene 9623
(28)	Etonitazene 9624
(29)	Etoxeridine 9625
(30)	Flunitazene ( N,N -diethyl-2-(2-(4-fluorobenzyl)-5-nitro-1 H -benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine) 9756
(31)	Furethidine 9626
(32)	7-hydroxymitragynine (7-OH)
(33)	Hydroxypethidine 9627
(34)	Isotonitazene (N,N-diethyl-2-(2-(4 isopropoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine; N,N-diethyl-2-[[4-(1-methylethoxy)phenyl]methyl]-5-nitro-1 H-benzimidazole-1-ethanamine) 9614
(35)	Ketobemidone 9628
(36)	Levomoramide 9629
(37)	Levophenacylmorphan 9631
(38)	2-(4-methoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1-(2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)ethyl)-1 H -benzimidazole (Other names: N -pyrrolidino metonitazene; metonitazepyne) 9762
(39)	2-Methyl AP-237 (1-(2-methyl-4-(3-phenylprop-2-en-1-yl)piperazin-1-yl) butan-1-one) 9664
(40)	Metodesnitazene ( N,N -diethyl-2-(2-(4-methoxybenzyl)-1 H -benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine) 9764
(41)	Metonitazene (N,N-diethyl-2-(2-(4-methoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine) 9757
(42)	Mitragynine
(43)	Morpheridine 9632
(43)(44)	MPPP (1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-propionoxypiperidine) 9661
(44)(45)	MT-45 (1-cychohexyl-4-(1,2-diphenylethyl)piperazine) 9560
(45)(46)	N- ethyl-2-(2-(4-isopropoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1 H -benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine (Other name: N -desethyl isotonitazene) 9760
(46)(47)	N,N -diethyl-2-(5-nitro-2-(4-propoxybenzyl)-1 H -benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine (Other name: protonitazene) 9759
(47)(48)	5-nitro-2-(4-propoxybenzyl)-1-(2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)ethyl)-1 H -benzimidazole (Other names: N -pyrrolidino protonitazene; protonitazepyne) 9763
(48)(49)	Noracymethadol 9633
(49)(50)	Norlevorphanol 9634
(50)(51)	Normethadone 9635
(51)(52)	Norpipanone 9636
(52)(53)	O-desmethyltramadol (Some trade or other names: 2-((dimethylamino)methyl-1-(3-hydroxyphenyl)cyclohexanol; 3-(2-((dimethylamino)methyl)-1-hydroxycyclohexyl)phenol)
(53)(54)	PEPAP (1-(-2-phenethyl)-4-phenyl-4-acetoxypiperidine) 9663
(54)(55)	Phenadoxone 9637
(55)(56)	Phenampromide 9638
(56)(57)	Phenomorphan 9647
(57)(58)	Phenoperidine 9641
(58)(59)	Piritramide 9642
(59)(60)	Proheptazine 9643
(60)(61)	Properidine 9644
(61)(62)	Propiram 9649
(62)(63)	Racemoramide 9645
(63)(64)	Tilidine 9750
(64)(65)	Trimeperidine 9646
(65)(66)	U-47700 (3,4-dichloro-N-[2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-methylbenzamide) 9547
(66)(67)	Zipeprol (1-methoxy-3-[4-(2-methoxy-2-phenylethyl)piperazin-1-yl]-1-phenylpropan-2-ol) 9873

(c) Any of the following opium derivatives, their salts, isomers and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1)	Acetorphine 9319
(2)	Acetyldihydrocodeine 9051
(3)	Benzylmorphine 9052
(4)	Codeine methylbromide 9070
(5)	Codeine-N-Oxide 9053
(6)	Cyprenorphine 9054
(7)	Desomorphine 9055
(8)	Dihydromorphine 9145
(9)	Drotebanol 9335
(10)	Etorphine (except hydrochloride salt) 9056
(11)	Heroin 9200
(12)	Hydromorphinol 9301
(13)	Methyldesorphine 9302
(14)	Methyldihydromorphine 9304
(15)	Morphine methylbromide 9305
(16)	Morphine methylsulfonate 9306
(17)	Morphine-N-Oxide 9307
(18)	Myrophine 9308
(19)	Nicocodeine 9309
(20)	Nicomorphine 9312
(21)	Normorphine 9313
(22)	Pholcodine 9314
(23)	Thebacon 9315

(d) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation that contains any quantity of the following hallucinogenic substances, their salts, isomers and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1)	Alpha-ethyltryptamine 7249
	Some trade or other names: etryptamine; Monase; α-ethyl-1H-indole-3-ethanamine; 3-(2-aminobutyl) indole; α-ET; and AET.
(2)	4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-amphetamine 7391
	Some trade or other names: 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine; 4-bromo-2,5-DMA.
(3)	2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine 7396
	Some trade or other names: 2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-methyl-phenethylamine; 2,5-DMA.
(4)	4-methoxyamphetamine 7411
	Some trade or other names: 4-methoxy-alpha-methylphene-thylamine; paramethoxyamphetamine; PMA.
(5)	5-methoxy-3,4-methylenedioxy-amphetamine 7401
(6)	4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxy-amphetamine 7395
	Some trade or other names: 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine; “DOM”; and “STP”.
(7)	3,4-methylenedioxy amphetamine 7400
(8)	3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) 7405
(9)	3,4-methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine (also known as N-ethyl-alpha-methyl-3,4 (methylenedioxy) phenethylamine, N-ethyl MDA, MDE, and MDEA) 7404
(10)	N-hydroxy-3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine (also known as N-hydroxy-alpha-methyl-3,4-(methylenedioxy) phenethylamine, and N-hydroxy MDA) 7402
(11)	3,4,5-trimethoxy amphetamine 7390
(12)	Bufotenine 7433
	Some trade or other names: 3-(Beta-Dimethylaminoethyl)-5-hydroxyindole; 3-(2-dimethylaminoethyl)-5-indolol; N, N-dimethylserotonin; 5-hydroxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine; mappine.
(13)	Diethyltryptamine 7434
	Some trade or other names: N,N-Diethyltryptamine; DET.
(14)	Dimethyltryptamine 7435
	Some trade or other names: DMT.
(15)	Ibogaine 7260
	Some trade or other names: 7-Ethyl-6,6 Beta,7,8,9,10,12,13-octahydro-2-methoxy-6,9-methano-5H-pyrido[1’,2’:1,2]azepino[5,4-b]indole; Tabernanthe iboga
(16)	Lysergic acid diethylamide 7315
(17)	Marijuana 7360
(18)	Mescaline 7381
(19)	Parahexyl 7374
	Some trade or other names: 3-Hexyl-l-hydroxy-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,6,9-trimethyl-6H-dibenzo[b,d]pyran; Synhexyl.
(20)	Peyote 7415
	Meaning all parts of the plant presently classified botanically as Lophophora williamsii Lemaire, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of such plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, derivative, mixture or preparation of such plant, its seeds or extracts.
(21)	N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate 7482
(22)	N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate 7484
(23)	Psilocybin 7437
(24)	Psilocyn 7438
	Some trade or other names: Psilocin.
(25)	Ethylamine analog of phencyclidine 7455
	Some trade or other names: N-ethyl-1-phenyl-cyclo-hexylamine; (1-phenylcyclohexyl)ethylamine; N-(1-phenylcyclohexyl)ethylamine; cyclohexamine; PCE.
(26)	Pyrrolidine analog of phencyclidine 7458
	Some trade or other names: 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl)-pyrrolidine; PCPy; PHP.
(27)	Thiophene analog of phencyclidine 7470
	Some trade or other names: 1-[1-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexyl]-piperidine; 2-thienyl analog of phencyclidine; TPCP; TCP.
(28)	1-[1-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexyl] pyrrolidine 7473
	Some other names: TCPy.
(29)	2,5-dimethoxy-4-ethylamphetamine 7399
	Some trade or other names: DOET.
(30)	Salvia divinorum or salvinorum A; all parts of the plant presently classified botanically as salvia divinorum, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of such plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, derivative, mixture or preparation of such plant, its seeds or extracts.
(31)	Datura stramonium, commonly known as gypsum weed or jimson weed; all parts of the plant presently classified botanically as datura stramonium, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of such plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, derivative, mixture or preparation of such plant, its seeds or extracts.
(32)	1-(3-[trifluoromethylphenyl])piperazine
	Some trade or other names: TFMPP.
(33)	4-Bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine 7392
(34)	2,5-dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylthiophenethylamine (2C-T-7), its optical isomers, salts and salts of optical isomers 7348
(35)	Alpha-methyltryptamine (other name: AMT) 7432
(36)	5-methoxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (5-MeO-DIPT), its isomers, salts and salts of isomers 7439
(37)	2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-ethylphenyl)ethanamine (2C-E) 7509
(38)	2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-methylphenyl)ethanamine (2C-D) 7508
(39)	2-(4-Chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (2C-C) 7519
(40)	2-(4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (2C-I) 7518
(41)	2-[4-(Ethylthio)-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl]ethanamine (2C-T-2) 7385
(42)	2-[4-(Isopropylthio)-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl]ethanamine (2C-T-4) 7532
(43)	2-(2,5-Dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (2C-H) 7517
(44)	2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-nitrophenyl)ethanamine (2C-N) 7521
(45)	2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylphenyl)ethanamine (2C-P) 7524
(46)	5–methoxy–N,N–dimethyltryptamine (5–MeO–DMT) 7431
	Some trade or other names: 5–methoxy–3–[2–(dimethylamino) ethyl]indole.
(47)	2–(4–iodo–2,5–dimethoxyphenyl)–N–(2–methoxybenzyl)ethanamine 7538
	Some trade or other names: 25I–NBOMe; 2C–I–NBOMe; 25I; Cimbi–5.
(48)	2–(4–chloro–2,5–dimethoxyphenyl)–N–(2–methoxybenzyl)ethanamine 7537
	Some trade or other names: 25C–NBOMe; 2C–C–NBOMe; 25C; Cimbi–82.
(49)	2–(4–bromo–2,5–dimethoxyphenyl)–N–(2–methoxybenzyl)ethanamine 7536
	Some trade or other names: 25B–NBOMe; 2C–B–NBOMe; 25B; Cimbi–36.
(50)	2-(2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine Some trade or other names: 25H-NBOMe.
(51)	2-(2,5-dimethoxy-4-methylphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine Some trade or other names: 25D-NBOMe; 2C-D-NBOMe.
(52)	2-(2,5-dimethoxy-4-nitrophenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine Some trade or other names: 25N-NBOMe, 2C-N-NBOMe.
(53)	1-(5-fluoropentyl)-N-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1 H-pyrrolo[2,3-b]pyridine-3-carboxamide (5F-CUMYL-P7AICA) 7085
(54)	2-(ethylamino)-2-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexan-1-one (other names: methoxetamine, MXE) 7286
(55)	1-(4-methoxyphenyl)-N-methylpropan-2-amine (other names: para-methoxymethamphetamine, PMMA) 1245

(e) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1)	Etizolam 2780
	Some trade or other names: (4-(2-chlorophenyl)-2-ethyl-9-methyl-6H-thieno[3,2-f][1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-a][1,4]diazepine)
(2)	Mecloqualone 2572
(3)	Methaqualone 2565
(4)	Gamma hydroxybutyric acid 2010
(5)	8-chloro-6-(2-fluorophenyl)-1-methyl-4H-benzo[f][1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-a][1,4]diazepine, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers (other name: flualprazolam) 2785
(6)	6-(2-chlorophenyl)-1-methyl-8-nitro-4H-benzo[f][1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-a][1,4]diazepine, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers (other name: clonazolam) 2786
(7)	8-bromo-6-(2-fluorophenyl)-1-methyl-4H-benzo[f][1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-a][1,4]diazepine, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers (other name: flubromazolam) 2788
(8)	7-chloro-5-(2-chlorophenyl)-1-methyl-1,3-dihydro-2H-benzo[e][1,4]diazepin-2-one, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers (other name: diclazepam) 2789

(f) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers and salts of isomers:

(1)	Aminorex 1585
	Some other names: Aminoxaphen 2-amino-5-phenyl-2-oxazoline or 4,5-dihydro-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine
(2)	Fenethylline 1503
(3)	N-ethylamphetamine 1475
(4)	(+)cis-4-methylaminorex ((+)cis-4,5-dihydro-4-methyl-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine) 1590
(5)	N,N-dimethylamphetamine (also known as N,N-alpha-trimethyl-benzeneethanamine; N,N-alpha-trimethylphenethylamine) 1480
(6)	Cathinone (some other names: 2-amino-1-phenol-1-propanone, alpha-amino propiophenone, 2-amino propiophenone and norphedrone) 1235
(7)	Substituted cathinones Any compound, except bupropion or compounds listed under a different schedule, structurally derived from 2–aminopropan–1–one by substitution at the 1-position with either phenyl, naphthyl, or thiophene ring systems, whether or not the compound is further modified in any of the following ways:
	(A) By substitution in the ring system to any extent with alkyl, alkylenedioxy, alkoxy, haloalkyl, hydroxyl, or halide substituents, whether or not further substituted in the ring system by one or more other univalent substituents;
	(B) by substitution at the 3-position with an acyclic alkyl substituent;
	(C) by substitution at the 2-amino nitrogen atom with alkyl, dialkyl, benzyl, or methoxybenzyl groups; or
	(D) by inclusion of the 2-amino nitrogen atom in a cyclic structure.
(8)	N-benzylpiperazine (other names: BZP, 1-benzylpiprazine) 7493
(9)	Methiopropamine (N-methyl-1-(thiophen-2-yl)propan-2-amine) 1478
(10)	4,4′-Dimethylaminorex (4,4′-DMAR; 4,5-dihydro-4-methyl-5-(4-methylphenyl)-2-oxazolamine; 4-methyl-5-(4-methylphenyl)-4,5-dihydro-1,3-oxazol-2-amine) 1595
(11)	Amineptine (7-[(10,11-dihydro-5 H-dibenzo[a,d]cyclohepten-5-yl)amino]heptanoic acid) 1219
(12)	Mesocarb (N-phenyl-N ′-(3-(1-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1,2,3-oxadiazol-3-ium-5-yl)carbamimidate) 1227
(13)	Ethylphenidate (ethyl 2-phenyl-2-(piperidin-2-yl)acetate) 1727

(g) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances:

(1)	N-[1-benzyl-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (benzylfentanyl), its optical isomers, salts and salts of isomers
(2)	N-[1-(2-thienyl)methyl-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (thenylfentanyl), its optical isomers, salts and salts of isomers
(3)	Tianeptine, its optical isomers, salts and salts of isomers

(h) Any of the following cannabinoids, their salts, isomers and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1)	Tetrahydrocannabinols 7370
	Meaning tetrahydrocannabinols naturally contained in a plant of the genus Cannabis (cannabis plant), as well as synthetic equivalents of the substances contained in the plant, or in the resinous extractives of Cannabis, sp. and/or synthetic substances, derivatives, and their isomers with similar chemical structure and pharmacological activity such as the following: Delta 9 cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and their optical isomers Delta 8 cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and their optical isomers Delta 6a,10a cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and its optical isomers, except tetrahydrocannabinols in any of the following:
	(A) Industrial hemp, as defined in K.S.A. 2-3901, and amendments thereto;
	(B) solid waste, as defined in K.S.A. 65-3402, and amendments thereto, and hazardous waste, as defined in K.S.A. 65-3430, and amendments thereto, if such waste is the result of the cultivation, production or processing of industrial hemp, as defined in K.S.A. 2-3901, and amendments thereto, and such waste contains a delta-9 tetrahydrocannabinol concentration of not more than 0.3%; or
	(C) hemp products, as defined in K.S.A. 2-3901, and amendments thereto, unless otherwise deemed unlawful pursuant to K.S.A. 2-3908, and amendments thereto.
	For the purposes of this subsection, the dibenzopyran system is the numbering convention used to identify the carbon atoms of the chemical structure.
(2)	Naphthylmethylindoles Any compound containing a 1H-indol-3-yl-(1-naphthyl)methane structure with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole group by an alkyl, haloalkyl, cyanoalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, benzyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not further substituted on the indole group to any extent and whether or not substituted on the benzyl or naphthyl ring to any extent.
(3)	Naphthoylpyrroles Any compound containing a 3-(1-naphthoyl)pyrrole structure with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the pyrrole group by an alkyl, haloalkyl, cyanoalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, benzyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not further substituted on the pyrrole group to any extent, whether or not substituted on the benzyl or naphthyl ring to any extent.
(4)	Naphthylmethylindenes Any compound containing a naphthylmethylindene structure with substitution at the 3-position of the indene group by an alkyl, haloalkyl, cyanoalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, benzyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not further substituted on the indene group to any extent, whether or not substituted on the benzyl or naphthyl ring to any extent.
(5)	Cyclohexylphenols Any compound containing a 2-(3-hydroxycyclohexyl)phenol structure with substitution at the 5-position of the phenolic ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, cyanoalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not substituted on the cyclohexyl ring to any extent.
(6)	2,3-Dihydro-5-methyl-3-(4-morpholinylmethyl)pyrrolo[1,2,3-de]-1,4-benzoxazin-6-yl]-1-napthalenylmethanone. Some trade or other names: WIN 55,212-2.
(7)	9-(hydroxymethyl)-6, 6-dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)-6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol Some trade or other names: HU-210, HU-211.
(8)	Indole-3-carboxylate esters Any compound containing a 1H-indole-3-carboxylate ester structure with the ester oxygen bearing a naphthyl, quinolinyl, isoquinolinyl or adamantyl group and substitution at the 1 position of the indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, cyanoalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, benzyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group, whether or not further substituted on the indole ring to any extent and whether or not substituted on the naphthyl, quinolinyl, isoquinolinyl, adamantyl or benzyl groups to any extent.
(9)	Indazole-3-carboxamides Any compound containing a 1H-indazole-3-carboxamide structure with substitution at the nitrogen of the carboxamide by a naphthyl, quinolinyl, isoquinolinyl, adamantyl, benzyl, 1-amino-1-oxoalkan-2-yl or 1-alkoxy-1-oxoalkan-2-yl group and substitution at the 1 position of the indazole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, cyanoalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, benzyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group, whether or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any extent and whether or not substituted on the naphthyl, quinolinyl, isoquinolinyl, adamantyl, 1-amino-1-oxoalkan-2-yl, 1-alkoxy-1-oxoalkan-2-yl or benzyl groups to any extent.
(10)	Indole-3-carboxamides Any compound containing a 1H-indole-3-carboxamide structure with substitution at the nitrogen of the carboxamide by a naphthyl, quinolinyl, isoquinolinyl, adamantyl, benzyl, 1-amino-1-oxoalkan-2-yl or 1-alkoxy-1-oxoalkan-2-yl group and substitution at the 1 position of the indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, cyanoalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, benzyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group, whether or not further substituted on the indole ring to any extent and whether or not further substituted on the naphthyl, quinolinyl, isoquinolinyl, adamantyl, 1-amino-1-oxoalkan-2-yl, 1-alkoxy-1-oxoalkan-2-yl or benzyl groups to any extent.
(11)	(1H-indazol-3-yl)methanones Any compound containing a (1H-indazol-3-yl)methanone structure with the carbonyl carbon bearing a naphthyl group and substitution at the 1 position of the indazole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, benzyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group, whether or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any extent and whether or not substituted on the naphthyl or benzyl groups to any extent.
(12)	(1H-indol-3-yl)methanones Any compound containing a (1H-indol-3-yl)methanone structure with the carbonyl carbon bearing a naphthyl, quinolinyl, isoquinolinyl, adamantyl, phenyl, benzyl or tetramethylcyclopropyl group and substitution at the 1 position of the indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, cyanoalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, benzyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)methyl, 1-(N-methyl-3-morpholinyl)methyl, or tetrahydropyranylmethyl group, whether or not further substituted on the indole ring to any extent and whether or not substituted on the naphthyl, quinolinyl, isoquinolinyl, adamantyl, phenyl, benzyl or tetramethylcyclopropyl groups to any extent.
(13)	Hexahydrocannabinol (HHC)
(14)	5-Pentyl-2-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)pyrido[4,3-b]indol-1-one, its optical and geometric isomers, salts and salts of isomers (Some trade or other names: CUMYL–PEGACLONE; SGT–151) 7093

(i) (1) Unless specifically exempted or unless listed in schedules II through V of the uniform controlled substances act, any material, compound, mixture or preparation that contains any quantity of a fentanyl-related substance or that contains the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of a fentanyl-related substance whenever the existence of such salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

(2) “Fentanyl-related substance” means any substance that is structurally related to fentanyl by one or more of the following modifications:

(A) Replacement of the phenyl portion of the phenethyl group by any monocycle, whether or not further substituted in or on the monocycle;

(B) substitution in or on the phenethyl group (or replacement as described in sub-paragraph (A)) with alkyl, alkenyl, alkoxyl, hydroxyl, halo, haloalkyl, amino or nitro groups;

(C) substitution in or on the piperidine ring with alkyl, alkenyl, alkoxyl, ester, ether, hydroxyl, halo, haloalkyl, amino or nitro groups;

(D) replacement of the aniline ring with any aromatic monocycle whether or not further substituted in or on the aromatic monocycle; or

(E) replacement of the N-propionyl group by another acyl group.

Sec. 4. K.S.A. 21-5801, as amended by section 2 of 2026 House Bill No. 2413, 21-5801, as amended by section 7 of 2025 House Bill No. 2347, 21-6614, as amended by section 2 of 2025 House Bill No. 2323, and 21-6614, as amended by section 4 of 2025 House Bill No. 2393, and K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 65-4105, as amended by section 2 of 2025 House Bill No. 2365, are hereby repealed.

Sec. 5. This act shall take effect and be in force from and after its publication in the statute book.

Approved April 27, 2026.